Home › Forums › Yeshiva / School / College / Education Issues › Philosophical Qs�NO KFIRAH
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November 9, 2012 9:33 am at 9:33 am #944078HaLeiViParticipant
Wisey, are you not the one who asked for another philosophical question?
November 14, 2012 3:30 am at 3:30 am #944079WiseyParticipantHaleivi-I just had to finish the previous discussion with a sort of clear answer and sorry for not realizing your intentions. Regarding your question about form and matter I think that if you consider form to be defined by physical borders than obviously something noncorporeal can’t have a form. However if having form only means something that exists in one place and not another than malochim which are spiritual beings and still finite can prove that form is independant to matter.
November 14, 2012 5:40 am at 5:40 am #944080ready nowParticipantNovember 14, 2012 5:19 pm at 5:19 pm #944081just my hapenceParticipantready now – nope, perceive does not mean “to know”:
1. To become aware of directly through any of the senses, especially sight or hearing.
2. To achieve understanding of; apprehend. [Middle English perceiven, from Old French perceivre, from Latin percipere : per-, per- + capere, to seize; see kap- in Indo-European roots.]
Note that even in the 2nd definition, it means to acquire understanding that was not previously there (“achieve”). HKB’H does neither of those, He just knows without perceiving.
November 15, 2012 12:34 am at 12:34 am #944082ready nowParticipantFrom Merriam Webster Dictionary:
“Definition of KNOW.
a (1): to perceive directly : have direct cognition of.”
November 15, 2012 7:57 pm at 7:57 pm #944084shnitzyMemberwhy not??
November 16, 2012 2:07 am at 2:07 am #944085ready nowParticipantHashem said to Moshe Rabbenu “You cannot see My face, for no man can see Me and live.” Shemos 33.20
November 16, 2012 4:00 am at 4:00 am #944086WiseyParticipantThe definition the Webster gives for know to be percieve is only because for us finite beings the only way to know is to percieve. However Hashem knows all before, during and after. Hashem is perfect and his knowledge is also complete and unrelated to time. His awareness of an event is in no way increased at the time the event happens. The completeness of his understanding does not fluctuate based on anything. Hearing involves a section of the mind focusing TEMPORARILY on a sound. Besides for the aforementioned reasons this makes it impossible for Hashem to “hear”.
November 16, 2012 4:19 am at 4:19 am #944087shnitzyMemberThat doesn’t mean that we can’t try to understand…
November 16, 2012 4:58 am at 4:58 am #944088ready nowParticipantWe really cannot speculate on how Hashem hears. Hashem has no physical body at all and that is what we know for certain. And Hashem hears, for He has said He does.
The prophets also heard Hashem
Then at Sinai we all Heard Hashem.
November 16, 2012 9:13 am at 9:13 am #944089HaLeiViParticipantIf it’s OK for the Tanach and Chazal to speak of Hashem that way, it is OK for us. If you feel that it is being misunderstood, explain it. There is no disagreement here at all about the ifs and hows. The whole argument is so small, that you can forget what the point was.
November 16, 2012 9:24 am at 9:24 am #944090HaLeiViParticipantWisey, I don’t think form has to mean physical boundaries, necessarily. In fact, any boundary, that defines the limit of an ‘object’ would be its form. The question is what’s the object? The Rambam describes Malachim as form without matter. But, a form is not really the object, it is about the object. So, how could a form exist on its own?
November 29, 2012 4:30 am at 4:30 am #944091WiseyParticipantA nishama isn’t matter but it does exist only within the physical boundaries of a person’s body. It exists within exact borders. This is the form.
December 1, 2012 11:24 pm at 11:24 pm #944092WiseyParticipantThe Chovos Halivavos in Shaar Hayichud proves the existence of a creator using philosophy. In the midst of the discussion he mentions that a portion (???) can’t be removed from anything infinite. This is because the leftover by default will now be less than the original amount and one infinite can’t be less than another. Does anyone here understand this? What about the numbers 1- 10 which are a portion of the entire number line which goes from negative infinity to infinity?
December 2, 2012 1:07 am at 1:07 am #944093ready nowParticipantNumbers can only be divided until the end of time when counting and dividing would stop.
December 2, 2012 2:12 am at 2:12 am #944094OneOfManyParticipantWisey: The infinite properties of sets in mathematics are applications of the concept of infinity, while the infinity discussed in Chovos Halevavos is the absolute concept. The absolute concept cannot be quantified.
December 2, 2012 3:25 am at 3:25 am #944095HaLeiViParticipantMaybe we don’t Pasken like that Chovos halevavos.
December 2, 2012 4:23 am at 4:23 am #944096ready nowParticipantDecember 2, 2012 5:44 am at 5:44 am #944097WiseyParticipantReady now- Subtraction just means taking away from the original. If the amount taken away is placed somewhere else is irrelevant. It could just disintigrate.
One of Many- this rule the chovos halivavos quotes from a greek philosophical book is just referring to regular infinity
Haleivi- are you suggesting that infinity-X has an answer? Everyone agrees that infinity is beyond the rules of arithmetic. I still have my kashya.
December 2, 2012 5:49 am at 5:49 am #944098WiseyParticipantAnd if anyone thinks that infinity-ten = infinity , that can be easily disproven.
December 2, 2012 5:50 am at 5:50 am #944099OneOfManyParticipantWisey: Exactly. And infinity in mathematics is not that infinity.
December 2, 2012 6:15 am at 6:15 am #944100ready nowParticipantRepeating what I wrote above-
That means NO subtraction.
December 2, 2012 6:07 pm at 6:07 pm #944101WiseyParticipantIf I understand correctly you two are saying that the infinity in the Chovos Halivavos is a form of infinity that encompasses the entire realm of existence and nonexistence. Therefore even if subtracting is just making a part become nonexistant it is still part of the whole. However, besides that this is hard to understand, if I explain the context of the CH I think it will become clear that this doesn’t answer the q.
When disproving the theory that the world has always existed and every person was born from parents going back forever without ever having someone who was the first person, the CH examines the ten generations between Noach and Avraham. This he says proves that the total generations ever is a finite number because there is no such thing as a part of infinity. To me this just seems like abstract math. Why can’t we give everyone a number and say that those aforementioned generations are 1- 10?
December 2, 2012 8:57 pm at 8:57 pm #944102HaLeiViParticipantReady, that’s only in the realm of something that takes up space.
Wisey, I meant nothing more than to sound ridiculous. That’s how it sounds to me when people say that when they personally don’t like a Shita.
One to ten is a name and method to count. The ability to count doesn’t end. Counting is the medium. Your question can only apply after you actually counted to infinity and you want to take off ten. That can’t happen, for the same reason you won’t get there.
December 2, 2012 9:04 pm at 9:04 pm #944103HaLeiViParticipantNumbers are very finite, and there’s very few of them.
One, two, three… hundred, thousand, million, bi-tri-quad-quin and other Greek numbers, which are limited as well.
The concept of counting doesn’t come with a limit, and is therefore infinite.
December 3, 2012 2:05 am at 2:05 am #944104ready nowParticipantWisey, you said above:
December 3, 2012 5:14 am at 5:14 am #944105OneOfManyParticipantHaLeivi: You realize that what you are saying does not make sense. For one to be able to count infinitely, he needs an infinite number of things to count. There are perhaps a finite number of specifically named numbers, but the cardinality of what we call “numbers” is indeed infinite.
December 3, 2012 5:42 am at 5:42 am #944106OneOfManyParticipantThe problem all of you are having is that you are treating infinity as a number. It is not a number – it is a concept that can be translated into a numerical property. It can be used to describe what happens at either end of the number line, not name what is there. The numbers 1-10 are not part of infinity – they can be described as part of any number of named sets that are infinite.
December 3, 2012 9:34 am at 9:34 am #944107ready nowParticipantEIN-SOF (Heb. ???? ????; “The Infinite,” lit. that which is boundless),is the name given in Kabbalah to Hashem.
December 4, 2012 2:38 pm at 2:38 pm #944108WiseyParticipantShkoyach nymphadora
December 4, 2012 3:28 pm at 3:28 pm #944109WiseyParticipantIsn’t the torah infinite and still it can be divided into parts as we say ??? ????? ??????.
December 4, 2012 3:29 pm at 3:29 pm #944110WiseyParticipantMaybe the answer is that every part in torah includes the whole torah so you can’t take off a part of it.
December 4, 2012 8:14 pm at 8:14 pm #944111R.T.ParticipantThe Torah is indeed infinite. The answer lies in the fact that each of the Otiot in the Aleph Bet can be spelled out; e.g., Aleph is Aleph-Lamed-Peh. So every letter of every word can be expanded and expanded and expanded ad infintum.
December 4, 2012 10:42 pm at 10:42 pm #944112OneOfManyParticipantInteresting terutz.
December 5, 2012 1:02 am at 1:02 am #944113benignumanParticipantWisey,
I believe that the answer to your question is that the mathematical “infinity” doesn’t actually exist. The number line is a human construct, it isn’t a real thing. Actual infinity is impossible for the human mind to comprehend.
Example: Imagine an infinite number of marbles. Now remove one marble. How many marbles are left? The answer has to be less than infinity, which will therefore be a number. Now put the marble back. You won’t have infinity, you will have the previous number +1.
In other words when dealing with actual infinity, if you break it down in component parts then you will quickly run into the above paradox.
December 5, 2012 1:04 am at 1:04 am #944114benignumanParticipantWisey,
Where did you get the idea that the Torah was literally infinite? The Torah is described as an ocean. Oceans are very very big, and very, very deep, but they aren’t infinite.
December 5, 2012 2:34 am at 2:34 am #944115frumnotyeshivishParticipantNow that that is settled, may I pose line of questions?
If a person born to devout Taliban parents in Afghanistan is brought up to believe that jihad is the way to go, and he blows himself up believing that he’s doing the world a favor, is he a bad person? Or just stupid for not questioning the religion he was born in? Do any of you think you would be a terrorist if born there? How do you know?
December 5, 2012 4:06 am at 4:06 am #944116Torah613TorahParticipantFrom my PIT:
What gives Rashi the right to comment on the Torah? (I’d like to see what you guys have to say)
December 5, 2012 4:09 am at 4:09 am #944117shnitzyMemberyes. I think every being is influenced by it’s background. the question is if people are born with morals or in their growth and because of their surroundings they develop morals. unless you say that a person is born with an innate sense of right and wrong, you cannot blame them for developing and acting on improper morals because of their flawed growth.
I think most people, aside from those who’s personalities lead them to questions, would become a terrorist given these circumstances.
you can’t blame them unless they made a conscious decision, which in my opinion they are not capable of.
December 5, 2012 4:45 am at 4:45 am #944118ready nowParticipantand Rabbi Shimon the son of Gamliel said, Pirke Avos 1:18
December 5, 2012 6:03 am at 6:03 am #944119WIYMemberFrumnotyeshivish
I heard an interesting thought from Rabbi Shafier of the shmuz. He asked why is it that we should hold someone who grew up in a bad environment where drugs and murder is common place responsible for crimes he commits. His answer was that Hashem created every person with an inner knowledge of right and wrong and everyone therefore knows right from wrong (not talking about someone mentally deficient) with regard to things like murder and theft. Therefore if one does it he has made a bechira choice and done such a crime he must be held accountable.
December 5, 2012 2:43 pm at 2:43 pm #944120HaLeiViParticipantBenign, exactly. I wrote that earlier. We don’t actually relate to infinity, although we have no philosophical rebuttal of the existance of this concept. The finite has no relationship with in the infinite by definition. A circle can not be made of small lines, because it would take an infinite amount of small lines, hence the irrational number for that relationship.
There are a lot of mathematical gimicks, riddles and paradoxes based on the misunderstanding, or the non-existant relationship, of infinity. You can’t get there and you can’t come from there.
Now, being infinite doesn’t mean there are no parts, it means there are an infinite number of parts. Our perception of space is that it is infinite, yet no one suggested that we don’t exist in it.
When discussing infinity you have to keep in mind that the lingering problem is that we don’t relate to it. Realize when the argument hit that problem, and stop there. Very often people think up different arguments about this, which really amount to the same problem.
You can’t separate or subtract a part of something infinite, but you can find a part of it and discuss that finite part.
Think about this before saying it’s wrong and repeating my words back to me.
December 5, 2012 3:04 pm at 3:04 pm #944121HaLeiViParticipantAbout the Taliban question, it’s none of our business. I read a book from the nazi hunter, Simon Wiesenthal, about his activities. It is full of intriguiging musings. At one point he writes that he won’t analyze the German mindset because, although possible, he doesn’t want to. This is a very true point.
People aren’t born bad, and almost anyone has a rationalization for what they do. Very few people do things because they are bad. Even when they want to do evil it is with the intent of showing who’s boss, or something like that.
However, internally bad or not, they are wrong. Dead wrong — in the sense that we kill them. Their soul gets judged by the One that knows the heart. We judge and act upon actions.
December 7, 2012 5:16 am at 5:16 am #944122frumnotyeshivishParticipantWIY – Rav Dessler writes otherwise. Everyone has a subjective level of bechira.
I think the answers to my question inevitably lead to this: is it one’s responsibility to be frum by choice, or should one blind his/herself, with the possible consequence (in their own logical sub-conscious mind) of being good, but wrong? The advantage of the second path is to avoid temptations and confusion. The advantage of the first path is that would differentiate our choices from those of the Taliban. I’m not implying c”v not to be frum, I’m just questioning: which is the best underlying motive?
December 9, 2012 8:55 pm at 8:55 pm #944123frumnotyeshivishParticipantAre all the philosophers stumped? Wow…
December 9, 2012 9:06 pm at 9:06 pm #944124OneOfManyParticipantIt didn’t pay well, so I got a job flipping burgers instead.
December 9, 2012 9:20 pm at 9:20 pm #944125yitayningwutParticipanthehe
December 9, 2012 9:46 pm at 9:46 pm #944126WIYMemberfrumnotyeshivish
Yes Im aware of that Rav Dessler. He may not have Bechira at this point but I believe the reason he is responsible for what he does now is for allowing his bechira to be taken away by making bad choices up to this point even though technically at this point he couldn’t control himself. Meaning, just like Paraohs bechira was taken away at some point I think after makah 5 so the meforshim ask how can he be punished, and they answer because the first 5 times he still had Bechira and chose not to do the right thing and not to accept what Moshe was saying bsheim Hashem.
I think what Rabbi Shafier means is that even if they were preached to from youth that you must kill “the infidel” internally we all know murder is bad. So if he chooses to kill and ruin his natural good conscience that Hashem gave him then he is responsible for that.
December 9, 2012 9:56 pm at 9:56 pm #944127frumnotyeshivishParticipantRav Dessler writes about one who was brought up between thieves may not be responsible for theft.
December 9, 2012 10:57 pm at 10:57 pm #944128frumnotyeshivishParticipantBut again, no one has answered my question. It is as basic and as fundamental as it gets. Anyone?
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