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I’ve noticed the spelling of the word Pharaoh (in the Chumash) sometimes the fay has a dot in the letter, and sometimes it is spelled without a dot. I have yet to find the answer why the spelling changes. Can anybody provide a reasonable explanation why the spelling changes?
I would probably call it a grammar issue rather than a spelling issue.
Another way of saying what DY said is it there is a Havara Petucha before a BeGeD KeFeT, then the BeGeD KeFeT has no dagesh.
What is an Havar Petucha? It is when the last syllable ends with a vowel sound. At the end of a word this is usually with the letters of Yud Alef Heh and Vav, which are called together Yaihu.
If there is a cantillation that is a stop (like etnachta, revii, zakaif katone, pashta, etc) on the word that ends with Havara Petucha, then that cantillation stops the effect of the Havara Petucha. For example, Eleh Tolados Noach, not Eleh Solados Noach.
Also a Mapik Heh is considered a consonant.
Who cares about Pharaohs name.
Anyone know Moshe’s name, how he was called in Mitzraim?
If there is a cantillation that is a stop (like etnachta, revii, zakaif katone, pashta, etc) on the word that ends with Havara Petucha, then that cantillation stops the effect of the Havara Petucha.
Which is an explanation of why we generally sat “borei p’ri hagafen” although “borei” is havara pesuchah (ends with aleph) – apparently, tere’s supposed to be a pause between “borei” and “p’ri” (some do actually sat “f’ri”).
(I got my information from dailyhalacha.com, I’m no dikduk expert).
there are six Hebrew letters which have hard and soft forms: Beth-Veth, Gimel, Daleth, Kaph-Chaph, Pay-Fay, Tauv-Thauv.
the rules governing this are extremely technical. But here is a rough rule: If the word Pharoh BEGINS a new sentence or clause then it is pronounced hard (P vs F).
However if Pharoh is a middle or end word in a clause AND ALSO it follows an open syllable (like a word ending in Aleph Hey Vav Yud) then the Pay is pronounced softly (F vs P). The purpose of the soft pronunciation is to facilitate slurring the words of the phrase into one unit (to emphasize the clause as a unit).
ZeesKite:
not to hijack this thread, but here are some answers to your q.
According to some ancient sources, the name Moshe (or Moses) comes from the Egyptian mo (water) and uses (drawn from) (Josephus, Antiquities 2:9:6, Contra Apion 1:31; Philo De Vita Moses 2:17; Malbim).
“bore”
(See Shmuel 2 22:17, Tehillim 18:12; note on Bereishis 47:11.)
tzaddiq: RIGHT ON!!
I knew we had some experts here!! (I knew the one from Ibn Ezra)
Now the question is, with all the names brought down in the Midrash that were given to Moshe by his parents (such as Tovyah, Ovadiah, and others), why is he referred to as Moshe, the name given to him by an Egyptian? Why doesn’t the Torah call him by one of his “Jewish” names?
I think that the answer is Hakarat Hatov to Bat Paroh.
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