Home › Forums › Bais Medrash › Oh vs Oy
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May 14, 2009 8:57 pm at 8:57 pm #953926squeakParticipant
Nu?
May 14, 2009 9:08 pm at 9:08 pm #953927areivimzehlazehParticipantBaruch Atah H-shem El-keinu Melech Ha’olam Hamotzi Lechem Min Ha’aretz (chew, chew, chew, swallow)
ok squeak- what was it you needed to say
May 14, 2009 10:15 pm at 10:15 pm #953928PMMemberoomis: I agree with you that both havaros are acceptable, in fact you are the one accusing Ashkenazi havara of being less authentic. However it is simply not true that Sefardi havara is the pure form of Lashon HaKodesh spoken by the Avos, it was certainly influenced by the local Arabic just as Ashkenazic havara was influenced by German, Hungarian, Russian etc. Also your comparison to English is inaccurate. Ashkenazim did not split off of Sefardim, both diverged from eachother.
May 15, 2009 12:05 am at 12:05 am #953929Jersey JewParticipantThis is so confusing!
May 15, 2009 1:13 am at 1:13 am #953930anonymisssParticipantmark, welcome back to the cr!
~a~
May 15, 2009 3:13 am at 3:13 am #953931oomisParticipantPM, I guess you and I will just have to agree to disagree. 🙂
May 15, 2009 3:15 am at 3:15 am #953932oomisParticipantMark, don’t be confused. We are just having a lively discussion, as usual…
Welcome back, though I don’t remember if I have seen your posts prior to this (then again, I don’t remember seeing lots of my own posts, either).
May 15, 2009 10:39 am at 10:39 am #953933onlyemesMemberI spoke several times to a world renowned professor of the Hebrew language, who is also a phenomenal talmid chacham about this issue. He basically laughed, explaining through numerous examples that language is and always was dynamic. Pronunciation of any language continuously changes over time due to a multitude of factors, and therefore there is no such thing, nor can there be such a thing as a “correct” pronunciation. Everyone’s minhag is legitimate;sfard, syrian,teimani, hungarian, litvish, yekke, you name it. Live and let live, and don’t use it as an exclusionary tool.
May 15, 2009 1:10 pm at 1:10 pm #953934oomisParticipantwell-said onlyemes
May 15, 2009 1:10 pm at 1:10 pm #953935NobodyMemberI suppose the Oy versus Oh pronounciation is similar to any country or area location with accents and pronounciations.
You have Drawls, Midwest, Southern, Brooklyn, Boro Park (kidding!)and at the same time you have English, Queen’s English, Estuary etc.
People will always strive to imply their regional accent is the correct one, the original one, the most eloquently ennounciated and so on so I guess the Oy versus Oh is much the same.
But, in the end does it make us any better of a person? Methinks not. Who really cares? I’ll tell you – only the person who thinks he is better than the next man.
The awful thing is that many a shidduch is based on the Hebrew accent or pronounciation of the boy/family. Sad.
May 15, 2009 4:29 pm at 4:29 pm #953936areivimzehlazehParticipantUp until that last line I liked your post, Nobody. But hold it- shidduchim are not BASED on this little fact- havara just tells you where this person is coming from. Is that so sad/bad?
May 17, 2009 7:07 am at 7:07 am #953937GoldieLoxxMemberonlyemes, do they also make sure the words are pronounced properly with the correct accent on the correct syllabul? or are they more into being yeshivish??
May 17, 2009 7:10 am at 7:10 am #953938JaxMembermark levin: welcome to the cr! we always see you on the homepage! great to have ya join us!
May 17, 2009 1:53 pm at 1:53 pm #953939onlyemesMemberMany of the posts here have brought out very valid points.
Essentially, there is no need for two consonants or vowels if the two sound identical. Hence, letters like sav, samach, sin, must have sounded different from each other at one time. So too with kaf and kuf, het and chaf and the like. Some groups, all of North African or Oriental origin (syrian, egyptian, yemenite)distinguish between these sounds, although these differences are inaudible to the untrained Anglo-Saxon ear. What we are left with is what we were taught as children, and that should be good enough. A little tolerance goes a long way.
As far as accenting the proper syllable, it seems that at least several hundred years ago, the Hebrew language as davened with or as learned with among ashkenazim, moved into a “mil-el” pronunciation. SHAbbos, TOrah, LUlav, SHOfar are all accented mil-el, but proper grammar would demand mil-ra, as in shaBBOS, luLAV, etc… Consequently, it is extremely common to hear all types of ashkenazic Jews, misnagdish and certainly chassidish, accenting mil’el as opposed to mil-ra when they daven. Is it grammatically “correct”?
I say, no, it is not, but so what? They know what they mean, God certainly knows what they mean, their intentions are pure, that’s the way they were taught by erliche yidden, so lay off, it is perfectly fine. My only exception would be when the misplaced accent changes the meaning of the word, a famous example coming up in Parshas Balak, “Ki lo NAchash be’yaakov” needs to be read mil-el, as NAchash means “magical incantations”, which is pshat in the posuk. To read it naCHASH would mean “snake”, which is clearly mistaken .
May 17, 2009 7:32 pm at 7:32 pm #953940oomisParticipantI so appreciate a grammarian. Great post, Onlyemes.
May 17, 2009 10:13 pm at 10:13 pm #953941chofetzchaimMemberRoshYeshivah, sorry for the caps, it bothers me as well but I didn’t write this piece and didn’t feel like re-typing the whole thing.
Great post, onlyemES!
May 18, 2009 5:24 pm at 5:24 pm #953942chaverimMemberThe teimini pronounciation, which predates the others and is no more similar to sefardic or shkenazic, is closest to the original. Why would anyone think that the sefardic (Jews from Spain and area) pronouciation is closer to the original than the ashkenazic (Jews from Germany and area) is beyond comprehension.
There is no clear timeline when the sefardic and ashkenazic Jews started differing from each other. It is unclear where the Jews of Babylonia went mostly (Germany, Spain, …) after the Talmudic period.
May 18, 2009 9:40 pm at 9:40 pm #953943BasYisroel2ParticipantWhen I was in school one of my teacher(a rebbe/rabbi) told us a long time ago everyone use to pronounce everything OH and then the Perushim came along and they were vrey makpid on a lot of things like dikduk so then we changed the havarah from oh -> oy
we wanted to show that we are nothing like the perushim so we now-the men pronounce it as Oy-it is really Oh-if you go to a yekkee shul I belive that they pronounce everything/ lot of words as OH!
May 18, 2009 10:35 pm at 10:35 pm #953944oomisParticipantWhen I was in school one of my teacher(a rebbe/rabbi) told us a long time ago everyone use to pronounce everything OH and then the Perushim came along and they were vrey makpid on a lot of things like dikduk so then we changed the havarah from oh -> oy
we wanted to show that we are nothing like the perushim so we now-the men pronounce it as Oy-it is really Oh-if you go to a yekkee shul I belive that they pronounce everything/ lot of words as OH!
The PERUSHIM?????? No. To make the sound of OY in Hebrew, all one needs to do is write something with a cholam (OH) followed by a Yud. In some cases a kawmatz and Yud will accomplsih the same thing, but that mostly applies to ashkenaz pronunciation, and the difference between the two would be OH-ee versus Aw-ee. Is it possible your rebbie said something else, not “Perushim”? The Perushim were the najority of frum Jews, those who followed both the Torah Shebichsav and the Torah sheb’al peh. they did not lead an ascetic life like the Essenes, and did not sit in the dark on Shabbos and eat cold food, like the Karaites.
I thought Yekkim pronounce a lot of Ohs as Ows. (I am really not knowledgeable about this, it is only a thought in my memory bank).
May 19, 2009 2:43 pm at 2:43 pm #953946NobodyMemberOomis your memory bank serves you well – Yekkes do pronounce the choilom as Ow. Very distinct old Germanic pronounciation it is indeed.
May 19, 2009 4:20 pm at 4:20 pm #953947tbParticipantSome parts of Germany they pronounced it as OW and other parts as OH
May 20, 2009 5:15 am at 5:15 am #953948anonymisssParticipanttb- these two letters -ow- have two different sounds that they can make.
~a~
May 24, 2009 1:32 pm at 1:32 pm #953949David S.MemberPashutehYid it isn’t a mishnah in Eduyos as far as I know, it is a Gemara in Bechoros 5a 🙂 Sorry if it annoys you, me being so meduyak 🙁
Thanks, David
May 25, 2009 9:16 pm at 9:16 pm #953950chofetzchaimMemberDavis S., it might be a Gemara in Berachos as well but check out this post where I quote the mishna in Ediyus.
May 26, 2009 11:43 pm at 11:43 pm #953951yossi z.MemberLubavitchers, i am told, pronounce it AY
May 22, 2013 12:02 am at 12:02 am #953953chofetzchaimMemberBoymp.
May 22, 2013 2:50 am at 2:50 am #953954☕ DaasYochid ☕Participantowch
May 22, 2013 4:20 am at 4:20 am #953955Oh Shreck!ParticipantHow does one say ??? ???? in the German dialect?
May 22, 2013 1:23 pm at 1:23 pm #953956ChortkovParticipant1)
I thought Yekkim pronounce a lot of Ohs as Ows. (I am really not knowledgeable about this, it is only a thought in my memory bank).
What are “Yekkim”? Ewww!
2) Imagine a Yekke leining ?? ???? ?? ?? ???? ?????? – and then imagine a Harry saying it, and then a litvak (A real litvak; ei rather then oi!). Sounds good!!
3) In Yeshiva, loads of guys call the ???? ????? the “Ketzos” – but when you say the full name, they call it “Ketzois Hachoishen” – nobody ever called it “Ketzos Hachoshen!
May 22, 2013 1:45 pm at 1:45 pm #953957twistedParticipantOP, note the eleventh commandment: You shall not mess with other people’s religion. And don’t even think of chastising those who insert a dagesh under the dalet of “echad”.
May 22, 2013 6:49 pm at 6:49 pm #953958Shopping613 🌠ParticipantOk, in a nutshell, what the heck is this thread about?
Shopping613 [$]613 The Awarder, President, and founder of SUC (Single Username Certificates) contact me to join.
Current members: Me ShtickyGuy Aurora7
May 22, 2013 9:32 pm at 9:32 pm #953959golferParticipantInteresting thread. Oomis, I read an old post of yours and was wondering-
You stated that when the world was divided during Dor Haflaga, Hebrew was one of the 70 languages. I guess you meant Lashon Kodesh. Hebrew as we speak it is an invention of Ehud ben Yehuda, based in part on Lashon Kodesh. Is Lashon Kodesh in fact one of the 70 languages, or is it a separate entity?
Oomis also stated that someone had to be speaking Lashon Kodesh in order for it to survive. While this is true of our basic world languages like Inuit and Welsh, I’m not sure this is the case with Lashon Kodesh. This is the language of the Torah through which the world was created. Does it have an eternal existence outside of humans speaking it?
I would be very interested in answers from any esteemed YWC linguists that want to make this clear. Including oomis, if you like!
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