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Have you read about how scientists traced the DNA of Yiddish speakers down to an ancient Ashkenaz located in or around modern day Turkey?
Let’s discuss please 🙂
Thank you!
Scientists change their minds about true science every few decades or so. Much of yesteryear’s science has been overturned and much of today’s science will be overturned in the decades ahead.
What article?
It is well known in anthropological circles that Aschkenaz was the Hebrew word for Germany. Aschkenazic jews in fact, hardly migrated to turkey at all. Turkish jews never spoke yiddish. yiddish is well known to be a corruption of the german language. The yiddish language itself mutated into various dialects as jews migrated from germany to Poland, Russia, and the other European countries.
The term Aschkenaz is hebrew for germany. The jews of turkey are sefardic heritage.The evolution of the name Ashkenaz is distinct. It had nothing to do with DNA. It was a name for someplace up north, and when Jews stumbled into Central Europe they wrote home and tried to explain where they were.
All Jews came from West Asia, which includes Turkey, Syria, Mesopotamia, Eretz Yisrael, etc. It isn’t like there was a pure strand of DNA in one particular place. People moved around, frequently. Just note the various place the אבות lived in during a mere four generations. What the DNA has shown, that is significant and was very disappointing to secular Jews (who don’t like being Jewish), is that Ashkenazim are not descended from diaspora converts but are from the same “stock” as all the other Jews (so much for various theories that we are really Turks from Central Asia, or some other such ancestry untainted by Jewish blood).
YIDDISH is not a corruption of German. It is a pidgeon, of what Jews had been speaking (a pidgeon of Latin and Hebrew/Aramaic) with German. It is no more “corrupt” than English is (remember that English is a pidgeon of Norman French with Anglo-Saxon “Old” English). It isn’t surprising that there are no Turkish words in Yiddish, since Ashkenazim never had much contact with the Turks.
Had the Khazar Jews moved into Europe, they would probably have brought many interesting words with them – though the Khazar Jews were primarily Greek (meaning “Roman”) Jews who fled from the Byzantine Empire (as we now call it, they were “Romans” back then), and probably moved to the Middle East when forced to migrate (Europe was still a backwater). Some Khazar descendants were located learning in what is now Spain (then part of the Arab world).
In the above post, the word I intended was “pidgin”, though actually the more correct term would be a “creole” or simply a mixed/hybrid language, or in 21st century terms, a “Mash-up”. However neither Yiddish nor English are corrupt forms of a language.
akuperma,
What the DNA has shown, that is significant and was very disappointing to secular Jews (who don’t like being Jewish), is that Ashkenazim are not descended from diaspora converts but are from the same “stock” as all the other Jews (so much for various theories that we are really Turks from Central Asia, or some other such ancestry untainted by Jewish blood).
While there are ample things done and believed by secular Jews at which we can take umbrage, I have never heard of the Ashkenazim-are-all-descendants-of-Khazars ridiculousness being promulgated by secular Jews. It’s usually espoused by anti-Semites and anti-Israel extremists.
Yes, Haaretz has in fact promulgated the Khazar theory. So yes, seculars do indeed stoop to that level.
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