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a question for the group: what kavanah do you (try to) have when performing mitzvos bein adam lachaveiro? Do you do it because it’s a mitzvas hashem, or because you want to help a person in need? Or both? I hear the sevarah to say that after har sinai, our sole moral guide is Torah, so we should only do mitzvos because of the command.
Today I saw a Gur Aryeh on the pasuk “im kesef talveh es ami” who explains why the lashon ‘im’ is used even though it’s a chiyuv. b’kitzur, he says it’s because Hashem wants us to fulfill this mitzvah out of our own desire, and *not* because it’s a command. He basically throws “gadol hametzuveh ve’oseh” out the window for this type of mitzvos! Also, I think Rambam writes somewhere in shemonah perakim that you should avoid “rational” aveiros (sichliyos) because they are intrinsically bad, and not because Hashem commanded us not to.
Which approach is right? Or is it really not a setirah at all? Sorry for the disorganization, but it does reflect my confusion right now! Hope someone can help.
It’s nice to say a Yehi Ratzon first.
It’s a Machlokes HaPoskim whether one needs to have Kavanah even while performing a BAL”CH or whether having Kavanah (that we’re doing it because Hashem commanded) while performing a BAL”CH defeats the purpose. It’s a fascinating conundrum. I thought that one could be Yotzei both by having in mind that you are doing it because this is what a good person would do and that HKBH wants us to be good people.
Rabbi Miller zatzal says if one does regular mundane things like cooking and cleaning, feeding and taking care of children, all without any thought, than he’s going through the actions just like any other baal chai. One is supposed to think and have kavana that he /she is doing it because ?? ??? ???? ????? etc., that elevates the act into a a mitzva, something sublime, something elevated, it elevates and make the person who did it into more of a Shalaim. A lot of his shiurim talk about this and the concept of doing it privately – ???? ??? ?? ?????.
LF: Okay. But other Achronim say the opposite.
zb: There’s a Kehillos Yaakov on it, if I recall. There’s also the Maharal in several places (heard quoted, not seen inside) that seems to be quoting/selecting from Spanish Rishonim in their presentation of Natural Law.
There is a machloket regarding whether or not mitzvot require kavana. The Halacha according to the Mishna Berura (60:10) is that if they are d’Oraita they require it but if they a d’rabbana they do not. Of course, if one refrained from doing an aveira without kavana that it is an aveira in the end one did not do it. There, however, is a very strong inyan to go beyond (Baba Metzia 30b). However, this is also part of the Halacha (Devarim 6,18 with Rashi and see He’emek Devar, Intro. to Sefer Bereisheet).
Avi K: The M”B quotes that in the name of the Magen Avraham, but he contradicts himself on that elsewhere and says that you even need Kavanah for a D’rabannan.
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