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Shticky, I don’t quite get your question from the Emoriim. They actually got squashed from the flattening operation, when the B’nei Yisroel were about to come through. Har Sinai and its neighbors were before the Aron, which is what went ahead to flatten out the hills.
Har Grizim and Har Eival are in Eretz Yisroel, after the Ananim left.
The Emoriim got squashed through the two mountains coming together not a flattening. So one can answer either that the “Anan” only flattened the mountains that Bnei Yisroel passed through so as to lessen the effort of travel but here they traveled around so there was no need for these mountains to be flattened. Another possible answer is that this maaseh was right after Aharon died and the Ananim went away (which were in his zchus) so there was no Anan to flatten.
Simchah- I heard that Bilaam hated the Jews even more so he wanted to curse them in a more severe manner but Balak only wanted to save himself so he just asked Bilaam to perform a light curse.
Haleivi-I am not sure why you switch back and forth between the aron doing the flattening and the ananim
The Emoriim were lying in ambush in the route that the B’nei Yisroel were to come through. If they were anyhow going around them there was no need for the Ness. When the mountains come together it becomes flat straight ground. Assuming the B’nei Yisroel were already higher than the ground of the foot of those mountains, coming together was leveling out the ground for them.
Your Pshat about Bilaam hating the Jews more than Balak did, is the Rashi mentioned by Simcha. The question was about the rest of the Parsha. We see that after the initial call, Balak also uses the term Kava Li.
I mention the Aron since I remember that the Aron went ahead for that purpose. This was only during the Ananim. Perhaps one caused the other to flatten it. The Aron brought the Hashgacha out onto the open areas and the Ananim did the flattening.
What you say about the story of the Amoriim happening after Aharon sounds very good. The only question is that we learn that the Ananim returned in the Zechus of Moshe Rabbeinu. Obviously, it didn’t return instantly because the Kenaanim found the Jews, and there was probably some time for people to realize that the Ananim was in the merit of Aharon — just like the Be’er returned in the Zechus of Moshe and Aharon, but only after a void was felt.
In ???? ??????, there is an ????? of ????? in ??? ??: ???? ?. On the spot, ??”? explains based on the ???? and the opinion of ?’ ????? that this is an ????? to attribute significance to certain times. For example, to say this season is a good time to start something. Doesn’t the idea that ??? is a time of good fortune and ???? ?? is a time of bad fortune violate this ????? ?????????
The Nosei Keilim on the Shulchan Aruch discuss this exact question. I think the answer they give is that if it’s real it’s not Assur. The Issur is assigning significance to non-significant times. I think R’ Schachter’s son had a Shiur on this on YUTorah about a month ago. The Poskim talk about this in Even HaEzer where it talks about only getting married in the first half of the month.
maybe we don’t paskin like rebbe Akiva there are other opinions as to what a meonain is.
This is Rabbi Shay Schachter’s (R’ Schachter’s son) Shiur on this precise question: (Mods, please let the link through. It’s from yutorah.)
http://www.yutorah.org/lectures/lecture.cfm/796173/_Shay_Schachter/Mishenichnas_Av,_Magic_&_Mazalot_
The Rashba brings proof that Rebbi Akiva himself went against this principle, since he composed Tefillos meant to be said at specific times.
Sam, I listened and I have two Ha’aros. He didn’t mention Achizas Einayim being a type of Kishuf — which is actually Mashma in the Rambam who is Soser himself otherwise. Also, he mentioned Siman together with Lo Se’onenu, but they are separate entities. The Gemara says that although there is no Nichush there is Siman.
However, the point is well illustrated from Rav that tested his Mazal by the ferry. The Gemara does not equate this with saying, ‘a deer ran by so I must return home’. The difference is that one makes sense and is part of an understanding that a day has its Mazal, while the other is baseless.
The Gemara says that we are not supposed to turn to astrologers but that if we heard something from them we should be wary. Being wary on their word is not a violation of Tamim Tihye, since it is true and you are not turning away from Hashem when He actually did make the world this way, with this system. Although, even if true, we are not supposed to turn to the astrologers and it would be a violation of Tamim Tihya.
You answered your own question:
the sin was “listening to his wife”
Parshas Shelach Lecha
The ???? says: ????? ??? ????? ????? ?????? ??? ????? ???? ???? ???? – Why does the ???? feel it necessary to tell us that the Bnei Yisroel were in the ?????
The ???? ????? brings from the ???? ???? that the ???? in ??? ??? says the ???? and ?????? ???? are ???? ???. The ???? ???? asks: Based on the ???? of ????? (Like :????? ??, where it says that because one is allowed to cook for guests on ??? ???, one is allowed to cook extras even if there are no guests, and he will eat it ????), one should be allowed to be ????? ???? since it could be required for ?????
(??? in ????? asks why anything is ???? on ??? – say that ????? that it is ???? for a ???? ??? ?? ???? say that it is ???? always, and ??? answers that a ???? is not ????. However, the ?? ????? ?? says that ???? is called ????)
To answer this, the ???? says ????? ??? ????? ????? –> In the ????, the ??? ????? didn’t do ???? (See ????? ?? and ??? ??????? ??) because there was no ??? ??????. {Even though apparently ??? ??? did do ????, it could still be that it was not yet called ????}
(This could also be why the story of the ????? is brought after the ?????? – the reason there was no ??? ?????? was because of the ??? ???????; see :??? ??????? ??.)
–Yekke2
Something doesn’t add up there. According to the Shaagas Aryeh, now that Milah is commonplace, am I allowed to transgress anything that would be permitted for Milah?
????? doesn’t make it ????, it’s still ???? ??????.
Anyhow, we aren’t ???? ??? nowadays to heat water for a ?? ?????.
We don’t say ?????
And do we pasken that ?????? ???? is doicheh shabbos?
Are you asking new, unrelated questions? I’m not sure I follow you.
@DY: You said that nowadays we aren’t Mechallel Shabbos to heat water. I asked if we pasken that ?????? ???? are doicheh shabbos or not.
You also said that it is still assur midrabanan. On that I asked why we don’t say ???? ?????? ????? ????? ??? ??? ?????, which will make it muttar midrabanan as well.
(I think Halevi posed similar questions on Yekkes original post a couple of pages back. I searched a bit on Hebrewbooks, and a couple of sources discuss similar problems with this Shaagas Aryeh, but most of them argue, they don’t answer.)
ca: It could be they messed up the Din and thought that if they became Tahor on Shvi’i they could bring the Korban because they would be Tahor the night after.
Bigben2, how does ???? even come into this discussion? The ????? was on ???.
ca: Maybe they went in to check and make sure there were no mice near the body. They went in 7 days before instead of 8 because they thought that was enough. They miscalculated.
The issue with Yaakov was that people were trying to console him for Yosef’s death and since Yosef wasn’t dead, he couldn’t be consoled for his death. With Parshas Nachamu, Hashem is not trying to console us for our “dead connection; rather He is consoling us by telling us that it is not dead. Likewise, if Yaakov Avinu had been told that Yosef was really not dead, that would have brought him consolation.
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