- This topic has 23 replies, 8 voices, and was last updated 12 years, 8 months ago by Logician.
-
AuthorPosts
-
February 29, 2012 1:42 pm at 1:42 pm #602288susheeMember
How can a wife be yotzei matanos levyonim (or even shaloch manos for that matter), since all money and possesions she holds is really halachicly owned by her husband?
Does her husband have to give her the money (or food) al tnai she should own it, in order for her to have what to give?
Can the husband give matanos levyonim (and shaloch manos) on her behalf?
I am assuming a woman has a chiyuv in both these Purim mitzvos, correct? Or does mitzvah she’zman grama come into play here?
February 29, 2012 3:23 pm at 3:23 pm #856715gavra_at_workParticipantHer husband can give for her, and she will be Yotze via the din of Eved Canaani and/or Zachin.
February 29, 2012 3:41 pm at 3:41 pm #856716popa_bar_abbaParticipantI dunno. What does the halacha say?
February 29, 2012 3:43 pm at 3:43 pm #856717popa_bar_abbaParticipantI am assuming a woman has a chiyuv in both these Purim mitzvos, correct?
Assuming? Assumption makes a donkey out of you and umption.
February 29, 2012 3:53 pm at 3:53 pm #856718popa_bar_abbaParticipantWomen are chayav in matanos l’evyonim. See OC 694:1; MB ad loc 1.
Regarding mishloach manos, see Rema OC 695:4 that a woman is chayav. But see MB cites Magen avraham that the minhag is that women don’t send and are perhaps yotzei when the husband sends on her behalf, but that we should be machmir and do so anyway. (Is the magen avraham talking about matanos l’evyonim also?)
Also note in rema there that a man should not send mishloach manos to a woman, nor a woman to a man. The reason is that a man might send to an almanah, and there might be a safek kiddushin. Interesting. (Magen avraham says it is a ch’shash of ???????, and does not apply to matanos l’evyonim which is money.)
February 29, 2012 3:54 pm at 3:54 pm #856719susheeMemberGavra, does the husband have to give in addition to his own to be yotzei her, or is she yotzei with the same mataznos the husband is yotzei himself with?
Also, how does mitzva she’zman grama work on this?
February 29, 2012 4:15 pm at 4:15 pm #856720popa_bar_abbaParticipantAlso, how does mitzva she’zman grama work on this?
mitzvas asei sh’zman grama is a rule for d’oraisoh’s (and even there not much of a rule, given its several exceptions). The rabanan who made each d’rabbanan decided separately whether to apply it to women. The purim mitzvos expressly apply to women.
February 29, 2012 4:32 pm at 4:32 pm #856721gavra_at_workParticipantGavra, does the husband have to give in addition to his own to be yotzei her, or is she yotzei with the same mataznos the husband is yotzei himself with?
AYLOR.
IMHO, a minimum of 4 perutos should be given (as per Popa’s MB).
mitzva she’zman grama doesn’t apply to Purim at all.
February 29, 2012 4:35 pm at 4:35 pm #856722Sam2ParticipantSushe: It doesn’t. Women are Chayav in Kol Mitzvos Hayom, even those that are Z’man Grama because Af Hein Hayu B’oso Hanes (Safek).
February 29, 2012 5:12 pm at 5:12 pm #856723big dealParticipantPoppa: Is Mishloach Manos part of the 7 Mitzvos Bnei Noach or are you perhaps “assuming” women are jews 🙂
February 29, 2012 5:43 pm at 5:43 pm #856724LogicianParticipantA women’s possesions are not owned by the husband, he just has the rights to their use.
Why is this more difficult than every mitzvah which requires “lachem” ?
And as the husband is required to give her “mezonos”, why should the ability to fulfill this mitzvah not be included ?
February 29, 2012 6:26 pm at 6:26 pm #856725Sam2ParticipantLogician: Not true. Ma Shekan’sa Isha Kana Ba’alah (Gittin 77b and other places).
February 29, 2012 6:28 pm at 6:28 pm #856726susheeMemberLogician: I believe the possesions she owned prior to marriage he has rights to without ownership, but anything she earns or gets during marriage he owns.
February 29, 2012 6:41 pm at 6:41 pm #856727WolfishMusingsParticipantsince all money and possesions she holds is really halachicly owned by her husband?
Of course, that’s not universally true either.
She has the option of saying “I’ll keep my money and support myself” — which, given the state of things in portions of the yeshivish world, would be a good deal for her.
And, lastly, it’s *her* option. He can’t unilaterally override her decision to do this.
The Wolf
February 29, 2012 6:43 pm at 6:43 pm #856728WolfishMusingsParticipantA women’s possesions are not owned by the husband, he just has the rights to their use.
I think you might be confusing property she bring into the marriage (which follows the rule you mentioned) with money she earns *in the marriage* which follows the general rule of belonging to the husband (unless she chooses to keep her earnings, as described above).
The Wolf
February 29, 2012 7:25 pm at 7:25 pm #856729popa_bar_abbaParticipantA women’s possesions are not owned by the husband, he just has the rights to their use.
Correct, but she can’t give them away.
Why is this more difficult than every mitzvah which requires “lachem”?
Women are not chayav in lulav.
February 29, 2012 7:32 pm at 7:32 pm #856730computer777ParticipantA woman has a right to release her husand from his obligation to support her, and her earnings and possessions then remain her own.
February 29, 2012 8:06 pm at 8:06 pm #856731susheeMemberAnd if she (like probably over 99% of wives) never told her husband not to support her and she’ll keep her earnings, how will she give anyone ML or SM, considering that she owns nothing (and assuming she didn’t bring any possesions from prior to marriage) to give away?
February 29, 2012 9:36 pm at 9:36 pm #856732computer777ParticipantFebruary 29, 2012 9:38 pm at 9:38 pm #856733computer777ParticipantSushe: I don’t know the % of wives who release their husbands from their obligation, but I’m sure it’s much less than 99%.
Furthermore, for some strange reason, women are not told they have this option.
February 29, 2012 9:48 pm at 9:48 pm #856734gavra_at_workParticipantsushe:
Assuming that her husband doesn’t want to give for her? A mishna in Nedarim:
????? ???? ?????, ???? ???? ??? ???? ????–???? ??, ??? ????? ???? ?????? ??? ????, ????? ??? ??? ?????? ???? ???, ??? ?? ??? ????? ?????? ????.
March 1, 2012 1:50 am at 1:50 am #856735LogicianParticipantShe receives money for her living expenses. Why is this different ?
Yes, but matzah is a question, for example.
March 1, 2012 1:52 pm at 1:52 pm #856736gavra_at_workParticipantAs an FYI, that is talking about Mishloach Manos, but the issues with Kinyanim are the same.
Why can’t he use Eved Cannani? There should be no requirement to be Zoche to someone else.
March 1, 2012 5:25 pm at 5:25 pm #856737LogicianParticipantI don’t know why I got hung up about “lachem”.
A women must make kiddush. As wine is not part of her usual diet, must the husband provide her with some ? I would think so. Why should this need be different ?
-
AuthorPosts
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.