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In short:
Do we say that since he is ineligible to participate in legal proceedings he is also ineligible to initiate them? Or can he, in fact, initiate legal proceedings even though he cannot participate in them?
The Wolf
Usual disclaimers: not halacha l’ma’aseh, AYLOR, YMMV, etc.
a woman is pasul l’aidus, but can initiate a din Torah.ot sure what you are asking.
why not? participation as a witness and initiation (i presume you mean as plaintiff) are entirely different things.
If this was true a single woman (No Husband, Brothers or Sons) who is a landlord could not go to Beis din against a non-paying tenant for back rent
In short, he can.
There is no reason why a posul cannot be a to’ein or a nitan. He or she just cannot be an eid.
Why wouldn’t they?
Not having standing means you are excluded from all legal proceedings. Anyone can legally take your property or your person. This occured in English law (i.e., the legal status of being an “outlaw”). It’s not part of our tradition.
Yes, these are not related.
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