Does foul language make things assur?

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  • March 30, 2015 4:08 am at 4:08 am #1148822
    ☢️ Rand0m3x 🎲
    Participant

    To clarify, my original question was:

    Does the presence of “strong language” in a work make it assur to

    read (etc.) it? The question was not about nivul peh – the

    issur to read such things is well-known. (I did want to make a

    point about the use of that term, though.) The question was also not about using such language yourself.

    March 30, 2015 8:14 pm at 8:14 pm #1148823
    Jewish Thinker
    Participant

    I highly doubt that strong language would make it assur.

    April 13, 2015 2:43 am at 2:43 am #1148824
    ☢️ Rand0m3x 🎲
    Participant

    “Well, according to Rav in Chulin 95b…”

    I think HaLeiVi’s reference is to Rav asking, rhetorically,

    “Because of this shoteh who acted improperly,

    should we forbid all the meat in the marketplace?”

    April 22, 2016 10:05 pm at 10:05 pm #1148825
    Jewish Thinker
    Participant

    I am so sorry Comlinx and scared d. d. for not answering that question. I can’t believe I didn’t answer this earlier.

    Answer:

    My M”M is the Taz in YD 124:1 who discusses the issue of nivul peh. If you see it, you”ll see that it is hard to believe the Taz is talking about inapproiate matters. It seems that he is talking about curse words.

    Sorry again,

    Jewish Thinker

    April 25, 2016 1:18 am at 1:18 am #1148826
    ☕ DaasYochid ☕
    Participant

    The Taz is l’ch’oirah talking the same type of speech the gemara is talking about, which is speech about inappropriate matters.

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