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Although the ???? says ?????, the ???? ????? says ????? ?????? ????? ?????.
In all the ???? ???? shuls that I daven in they say ????? which is my minhag. But the litvish ?????? that I used to learn in all said ?????.
My question is as follows: How comes nobody says ?? ?????? Everybody I know calls it ?????? ??? ?. Why?
Maybe you never met me: I say ?? ?????.
Because it is too much of an allilliteration
maybe because it started out as a yeshivish thing to celebrate lag baomer
Because it’s a day In the Omer that is celebrated! We don’t call it Shloshim v’sholosh yom L’omer, it’s called LAG B’omer!
in other worrds its not said in the lashon of counting, with a vav, meaning “towards” the Omer. it is a description of the day.
I once heard that the fact that minhag olam is to call the day lag BAomer is a proof that the correct way to count each night is LAomer. After all, we know that if one says the number of the day before counting, he can no longer count with a bracha. So can one say, before counting, tonight is LagBaOmer? Only if the PROPER way to count is LAomer. Then, by saying LagBaOmer, he will not have properly counted and can then still count with a bracha. Therefore, since the proper way to count is LAomer, the minhag arose to call the day Lag BAomer so as to avoid such a problem. (Yes, this probably belongs on the Purim Torah thread….)
My personal minhag each night is to count twice (I say the bracha only once.). I say HaYom Yom Echad LaOmer. HaYom Yom Echad BaOmer. I know that, in truth, one is yotzei either way, but for two extra seconds each night, why not be yotzai both shitos?
I heard that although the mishna berura says that most poskim hold you should usually say laomer, but on lag baomer when it is the yahrzeit of the Rema, out of kavod for him we call the day lag baomer which is according his opinion
I SAY Lag B’Omer, but counted L’Omer.
My personal minhag each night is to count twice (I say the bracha only once.). I say HaYom Yom Echad LaOmer. HaYom Yom Echad BaOmer. I know that, in truth, one is yotzei either way, but for two extra seconds each night, why not be yotzai both shitos?
I do the same, based on a recommendation I once heard from a certain rov. I wonder, since as you mentioned, you’re yotzei either way, if there’s really a point. Isn’t it comparable to R’ Chaim’s esrog shailah (if you have a m’hudar with a shailah on the yichus and a m’yuchas which is not so nice, take the nicer one first, since once you’re yotzei, you can’t add hiddur.)?
I say ba’omer or ?????
I say ba’omer or ?????
That’s okay, you’re yotzei either way. (Or ????) ?
LOL Daas Yochid
Daas can you please explain R’ Chaim’s question and answer in depth.
Thanks
Dr. Bakay,
Let’s say you have two esrogim. One is beautiful, which is preferred, for hiddur mitzvah. However, it might come from a tree which was grafted, so its kashrus is questionable.
Your other esrog is plain looking, but is unquestionably kosher. The obvius thing to do is to take both, but R’ Chaim’s question is which one should be take first.
He says to take the nicer one first, with the following reasoning:
If the first (nicer) one is indeed kosher, you’ve done the mitzvah b’hiddur, in the best possible way. Taking the second esrog is unnecessary, but harmless.
If the first one was not kosher, there was no harm in taking it (if the second one was taken immediately after the first, presumably the brachah can be applied to the second one, and there’s no hefsek), and you are yotzei the mitzvah with the second.
If, however you first take the one with impeccable “yichus” (definitely not grafted), you are yotzei the mitzvah right away, and the mitzvah can only be done once (per day). Taking the nicer one afterward has no benefit; according to R’ Chaim, you can’t add hiddur mitzvah to a mitzvah which you were already yotzei.
This past shabbos the Rav in shul asked this question of why we say Lag Beomer and not Lag Leomer (according to minhag sfard) ???
He answered that Belz doesnt say Leshaim Yichud on 32 of the Omer bc the Nodah BeYehuda was anti Leshaim Yichud, so on his Yurtzeit they omit it. The Mechaber in shulchan orach writes LeOmer but the Rama writes BeOmer. Guess whose Yurtzeit is on Lag Beomer….???? That’s right, the Rama’s yurtzeit. So that is why we say Lag Beomer, out of respect for the Rama.
gotbeer, thank you.
DY,
I personally also count both ways but to avoid R’ Chaims problem i only repeat the last word and within Toch Kidei Dibur.
Hayom yom echad la’omer ba’omer
And then i say it in English to further avoid any confusions.
🙂
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