Curious about this one for a long time – does anyone think there’ve been historical and geographic factors that have caused sharp culturally different approaches to halacha and yahadus in general between sepharadim and ashekenazim?
Allow me to provide an example of sorts by saying that it seems to me sepharadim, culturally, are less wracked by guilt in their approach, since they never went through the same relentless bloddy persecution that ashkenazim have over the last 1,500 years or so. It strikes me that some of the flaming back and forth that goes on here over non-halachik or semi-halachik minutae would be anathema to sepharadic culture.