Reply To: Can a Golem Speak?

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#945057
just my hapence
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Haleivi – That’s not what I was saying. I was saying that if a document suddenly appears 250 years after it was purportedly written that has not been published before it is unwise to assume that the authorship is genuine and that the content is reliable. I’m sure you would not take the word of the New Testament (a document with similar origin, though it appeared 70-90 years after it was purportedly written rather than 250) just because it said it was accurate. The writings of the Maharal were published in his lifetime and (despite a break in publication) can be traced back to him.

Furthermore, the mumar also doesn’t use the word golem (that appears in brackets) but calls them men made out of clay. And he is still talking about golems in general. And you haven’t actually answered the question: how could R’ Aufhaussen claim no golems were made anymore when all present would have seen or heard of one had the Maharal made one?

Joseph – shaychus?!