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February 5, 2013 2:30 pm at 2:30 pm
#926978
oomis
Participant
1) Sort of like ItcheSrulik said, it’s very likely that he was just pandering to the cultural biases of his time to make his works popular without having a confirmed belief in them. Which brings us to:”
He had no need to write anything at ALL about Jews. His plays were already successful. I guess we could debate this ad nauseum.
Some people feel Marlowe WAS Shakespeare. Their styles were similar. Personally, I love S’s works. The stories have withstood the test of time and have often been updated to make modern movies and shows out of their plots. “West Side Story” was a retelling of “Romeo and Juliet.”