This Has Nothing to do With Techeiles PBA

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  • #613129
    Patur Aval Assur
    Participant

    So in Avos 6:3 we are told that even if someone teaches you one letter ???? ????? ?? ???? based on a kal vachomer – if Dovid who learned only two things from Achitofel, referred to him as ???

    ????? ?????? then surely someone who learns from his friend ??? ??? ?? ???? ??? ?? ???? ??? ?? ???? ??? ?? ???? ??? ??? surely must ????? ?? ????. The problem is that this violates the principle of ??? since the most we can learn from Dovid is that you have to honor someone who taught you two things. The Medrash Shmuel attempts to deal with this issue. One of his suggestions (which in fact he rejects because it’s dochek) is that this braisa is (in accordance with) R’ Tarfon who doesn’t hold of ???. The problem is that we know from Bava Kamma 25a that what R’ Tarfon actually holds is ?? ??? ??? ??? ???? ?????? ??? ???? ??? ????? ??? ??? ??? ??? and in our case it is not ????? ??? because you can still make a kal vachomer that you have to honor someone who taught you two things.

    #1043086
    popa_bar_abba
    Participant

    My wife apologizes.

    #1043087
    ☕ DaasYochid ☕
    Participant

    I forgive her.

    #1043088
    Sam2
    Participant

    PAA: Tosfosim all over Shas point out that there is a Shittah that doesn’t hold of Dayo even when the Kal V’chomer is Muphrach.

    #1043089
    popa_bar_abba
    Participant

    BTW: it’s dayo “l’bah min hadin”–it is enough for the matter which comes from a “din” (din means kal vchomer)–lihiyos knidon–to be like the matter being judged

    Took me very many years in yeshiva before I thought two seconds about this phrase and realized that “dayo lavoh min hadin” is nonsense

    #1043090
    Patur Aval Assur
    Participant

    Sam2:

    It’s pretty explicit in the Gemara in Bava Kamma that I quoted. I don’t see how you can read into that that R’ Tarfon doesn’t hold of Dayo at all when the Gemara is coming to say the exact opposite.

    #1043091
    ☕ DaasYochid ☕
    Participant

    Sam, where? The Gemara says dayo is d’Oraisah.

    #1043092
    Patur Aval Assur
    Participant

    Sam2:

    Perhaps you are thinking of Tosafos in Bava Metzia 95a D.H. Hanicha where Tosafos says that the Gemara asked ????? ???? ???? ??? ??? in accordance with the Gemara in Bava Kamma’s original presumption (which it rejects) that there is a man d’amar who doesn’t hold of Dayo. But that does not show that there actually is such a man d’amar.

    #1043093
    ☕ DaasYochid ☕
    Participant

    Possible mehalech? –

    ???? ?????? ??? means for a given case, not in its entirety. True, the ?”? would apply to the case of someone who taught two halachos, but it would be ????? for one who taught ??? ???.

    ???”? the ???? of ????, where for the case in question, the ?”? is still used.

    #1043094
    Patur Aval Assur
    Participant

    Interesting suggestion but it doesn’t resonate with me.

    #1043095
    Patur Aval Assur
    Participant

    After thinking about it, I actually do like your answer, but I would just phrase it slightly differently: The issue of dayo is that the halacha that you are applying to the second case has to be the same as the halacha in the first case. As opposed to here where the halacha is the same but the situation of the first case is not the same as the first case. (I think that is what you were saying.) My issue though, is that if this is a good chiluk then the Medrash Shmuel should never have had his question in the first place because presumably it’s a din in when the rules of dayo apply, not a specific chiddush in being mafrich the k”v.

    #1043096
    HaLeiVi
    Participant

    The Rav Mibartenura explains the Kal Vachomer that Achisofel was a Rasha. One thing or two doesn’t make a difference Misvara. The point we are learning is that although he is not actually his Rebbe, since he learned a drop from him he called him his Rebbe.

    #1043097
    Patur Aval Assur
    Participant

    The Medrash Shmuel though is clearly not learning that way. I am asking on the Medrash Shmuel.

    #1043098
    ☕ DaasYochid ☕
    Participant

    PAA, why would the MS not have an issue if he originally assumed the B’raisa was the Rabbonon? The kal vachomer as applied to the case of someone who was taught one halacha doesn’t work (because of dayo) according to the Rabbonon, but according to R’ Tarfon it does work, because the alternative would be to discard the k”v (for that case).

    HaLeiVi, there’s a pirush from the Rav on Avos D’R’ Nosson? The pshat you mentioned is found (more elaborately) in the pirush of the Gaon’s brother, but as PAA said, the MS doesn’t agree.

    #1043099
    Patur Aval Assur
    Participant

    DaasYochid:

    Because while I hear your chiluk, it doesn’t make sense to me that it’s a chiluk in types of pircha. I could hear that there is a chiluk between a dayo on the halacha and a dayo on the situation (which is arbitrary but at least I can hear it conceptually). If it is in fact a din in the dayo, then there should never have been a question to begin with because this case would not be a problematic dayo. Unless you say that only R’ Tarfon holds of your chiluk. But that would be odd because ostensibly the chiluk (the way I’m saying it) is completely unrelated to whether the dayo is mafrich the kal vachomer which in essence would mean that there is a completely seperate machlokes between R’ Tarfon and the Rabanan which is never discussed.

    #1043100
    ☕ DaasYochid ☕
    Participant

    It’s not a chilluk in types of pircha, it’s a chilluk as to whether we see one or two separate k”v.

    If the k”v is in severity of punishment (as in hesger Miriam; the equivalent here would have been level of kavod required), that would be one k”v, and R’ Tarfon would also hold of dayo.

    However, the k”v is in what causes the requirement for kavod, hence, we can consider it as two separate k”v; one, to learn the requirement for someone who taught two halachos, which even the Rabanan would agree to, and the second, to learn the requirement for kavod for less than two halachos, which only R’ Tarfon would hold of (because that k”v would be mufrach if we applied dayo).

    #1043101
    Patur Aval Assur
    Participant

    Actually come to think of it, if you don’t hold of dayo in this type of kal vachomer, you have entirely undermined the whole concept of kal vachomer. Because it’s not a kal and a chamur here – learning one halacha is not more chamur than learning two halachos so there’s no kal vachomer in the first place. If anything it’s the exact opposite of a kal vachomer. Forget dayo. So if you say that R’ Tarfon holds that it’s ok to make a kal vachomer from two halachos to one halacha since otherwise you wouldn’t be able to make this kal vachomer, you can then make any kal vachomer from something more chamur to something more kal with the excuse that otherwise there would be no kal vachomer in this case. That doesn’t make any sense.

    #1043102
    ☕ DaasYochid ☕
    Participant

    Of course it doesn’t make sense to use a pircha as a k”v! But, that was never the k”v. The k”v was from a rasha to an equal. The two halachos was the dayo, not the k”v.

    #1043103
    Patur Aval Assur
    Participant

    But that would still have nothing to do with dayo. That would be a kal vachomer with a pircha in that the chamur has a tzad kal. This would be the same as for example the kal vachomer in kiddushin:

    A wife can be acquired through biah and an amah ivriya cannot. So if an amah ivriyah can be aqcuired with kesef then surely a wife can be aqcuired with kesef. The Gemara shlugs it up because ama ivriya has a tzad chamur in that she can be released through kesef whereas a wife cannot be released thorough kesef. Now according to you that is not a pircha; it’s a dayo – you can only make the kal vachomer from ama ivriya to a case which is equal in that it can also be released with kesef. But to make the kal vachomer to a case which cannot be released with kesef is exceeding the mandate and is dayo. Then R’ Tarfon would come along and say that it’s a good kal vachomer because there is no case of a wife that can be released with kesef so this particular kal vachomer would be mufrach.

    #1043104
    ☕ DaasYochid ☕
    Participant

    Dayo is an entirely different type of pircha; I probably shouldn’t have even called it a pircha.

    Dayo limits the extent (or possibly, as in this case, the applicible cases) of a k”v. IOW, it doesn’t challenge which is the kal and which is the chamur, it limits what we can learn from the k”v.

    A pircha shows that which has a tzad chsmur also has a tzad kal, so meiheicha teisi to follow the tzad chamur; maybe we should view it as a kal.

    Again, the kal and chamur here is the rasha (Achitofel) vs. an ordinary, non rasha, equal who taught Torah. A standard pircha would be to show how there’s an opoksiree aspect to Achitofel, but that’s not what the dayo does; it merely limits the effects of the k”v.

    #1043105
    Patur Aval Assur
    Participant

    The Kal Vachomer is made up of the case of the kal and the case of the chamur. The kal in this case is that Achitofel deserved kavod for teaching Torah. For the sake of making my point let’s pretend that Achitofel taught Dovid the entire Torah. Now we have a kal aspect of the case which is that the teacher was a rasha but we have a chamur aspect of the case in that he taught him a tremendous amount. When applying that to a regular person we have a tzad chamur that the teacher is less of a rasha but we have a tzad kal that he taught less Torah. In other words there are two factors determining the kal and chamur – one is the righteousness of the teacher and one is the amount of Torah taught, both of which ostensibly can affect the requirement of giving kavod. So we wouldn’t know which one is more chamur and there would be no kal vachomer. Just like by isha and ama ivriya we don’t know which is more chamur because isha can be acquired through biah and ama ivriya can be released through kesef.

    #1043106
    ☕ DaasYochid ☕
    Participant

    OK, so you’re asking a different question on the Medrash Shmuel, but I don’t think it has anything to do with what I said.

    #1043107
    Patur Aval Assur
    Participant

    (Sorry about the length – it is hard to speak out these kind of things in concise written form.)

    I think I should backtrack and explain myself better. Let’s start with the etzem machlokes between R’ Tarfon and the Rabbanan as discussed in Bava Kamma. The potential kal vachomer is to prove that keren is chayev nezek shalem when it’s in reshus hanizik. One way to prove it is by showing that reshus hanizik is more chamur than reshus harabim and therefore if keren in reshus harabim is chayev chatzi nezek then in reshus hanizik it should be chayev nezek shalem. A second way to prove it is to show that keren is more chamur than shen v’regel and therefore if shen v’regel in reshus hanizik is chayev nezek shalem then keren in reshus hanizik is surely chayev nezek shalem. The Rabbanan say that both ways are invalid because of dayo. Regarding the first way it is very hard to see how anyone could hold of such a kal vachomer – how can you prove that reshus hanizik will be more chayev than reshus harabim just because it’s more chamur? Why can’t it be equally chayev just like in every other kal vachomer where the halachos are equal. Saying that if we don’t make it more chayev then there won’t be any kal vachomer is hardly an excuse to make a kal vachomer that doesn’t make sense – if there’s no possible kal vachomer then don’t make a kal vachomer! It’s not a license to make an invalid kal vachomer. I would posit that R’ Tarfon agrees to this when he says …?? ??? ?? ???? ??? ???? ??? ???? ??? ????. Now when we turn to the second way, it’s a horse of a different color. In the second way we have established that keren is more chamur than shen v’regel. So if shen v’regel is chayev nezek shalem in rishus hanizik then keren MUST BE AT LEAST AS CHAYEV as shen v’regel which would be nezek shalem in reshus hanizik. That is a logically compelling kal vachomer. The Rabbanan come along and invalidate in on a technicality that since l’maaseh it’s more than what we find by keren in reshus harabim the kal vachomer is illegal. R’ Tarfon’s response of mafrich kal vachomer would then be that we can’t apply the technicality of dayo when it will invalidate the entire kal vachomer BECAUSE it will then come out that keren will have a lesser halacha than something which it is more chamur than. This is I think what he means by ??? ??? ??? ???? ?????? ?”?. It actually makes a lot of sense. But I don’t think it makes any sense to say that there is a blanket hetter to make any kal vachomer in violation of daya as long as it would otherwise be mufrach – then we just won’t make the kal vachomer. R’ Tarfon is talking about where we are forced to make a kal vachomer because otherwise the halacha wouldn’t make sense.

    That being said, I don’t think your chiddush of individual cases is correct. I think R’ Tarfon would agree that you can’t make a kal vachomer to a case where someone only taught you one halacha, because there is no way to prove that teaching one halacha deserves kavod. So it comes out that my question is really on the whole braissa to begin with – how can they make such a kal vachomer? Now looking back at the Medrash Shmuel I see that this is what he asked first. He then says that some people explain that the proportions of Dovid’s greatness and Achitofel’s wickedness allow us to make the kal vachomer to regular people teaching one halacha. At that point he objects by saying that it’s dayo. So here my question would come back – leave dayo out of this and reiterate that it’s not a valid kal vachomer.

    So in conclusion, I am definitely asking something different than when I first started and it is probably because of our whole back and forth that I came to this. I think it does have to do with what you said in that I now disagree with your chiddush, whether or not your chiddush is actually relevant to my question.

    #1043108
    ☕ DaasYochid ☕
    Participant

    You’re asking a kashya, then, based on assumptions which are quite questionable. According to your assumptions, the chilluk between cases where R’ Tarfon holds of dayo or doesn’t should have nothing to do with heicha d’mifrach kal vachomer.

    It actually does make sense that something which is more chamur should also be more chamur elsewhere, and it also makes sense to never say a kal vachomer because of a possible unknown pircha (a reason given for ein onshin min hadin) but the bottom line is that the Torah gives guidelines as to when to say and how far to say a k”v. R’ Tarfon and the Rabbanan disagree about the guidelines.

    Where I though you had a valid question was in categorizing the two halachos vs. os achas as dayo, as opposed to calling the two halachos a tzad chamur and therefore a pircha (I think this can be answered, but it’s a good heoroh).

    #1043109
    Patur Aval Assur
    Participant

    1)The Chilluk has everything to do with heicha d’mifrach kal vachomer. When the kal vachomer will be mufrach and will leave you in a situation where the halacha is more kal than the kal case then we discard the technicality of dayo.

    2)Of course it makes sense that something more chamur should be more chamur elsewhere, but it also makes sense that it should be equal elsewhere – which is in fact how it is in almost every kal vachomer.

    3)There is always a possibility of an unknown pircha but we assume that when the Gemara makes and accepts a kal vachomer they cleared the standard. In fact there is either a Tosafos or a Maharsha in Kiddushin which asks why the gemara doesn’t make a certain kal vachomer and answers that the Gemara must have had some pircha that we don’t know of. (If I have time maybe I’ll locate the exact source.)

    So I don’t think my question is based on questionable assumptions. We agree that the Rabbanan and R’ Tarfon are arguing about the guidelines. I think that the guideline that they are arguing about is whether we uphold the technicality of dayo when it would force us to discard a kal vachomer and therefore have a halacha that doesn’t make sense. What do you think they are arguing about?

    #1043110
    ☕ DaasYochid ☕
    Participant

    They are arguing over whether we say dayo heicha d’mifrach kal vachomer, not over how much “sense” a k”v has to make.

    It’s possible to express R’ Tarfon’s view as being that the existence of a k”v is a mandate to learn out a halacha, and if something can be learned from the k”v without violating dayo, we do so and stop there, but if necessary, we even violate dayo in order to make sure the k”v is used.

    I’m not sure that’s necessary, though.

    #1043111
    Patur Aval Assur
    Participant

    So I guess I disagree with you on that point because the way I see it, what you are saying is that R’ Tarfon is legitimizing kal vachomers that don’t make sense.

    #1043112
    ☕ DaasYochid ☕
    Participant

    No, as I said (and you agreed), it does make sense to go beyond the ????, although it’s “safer” to stay within it. The bottom line of where we disagree, possibly, is that I hold that at at the end of the day, despite the fact that kal vachomer seems to simply be a logical device, it’s much more than that; it’s a means of HKB”H teaching us halachos, much as the other twelve middos are. There is logic to it, but it’s not iron clad in that way, and the degree of logical proof doesn’t have to be consistent.

    #1043113
    Patur Aval Assur
    Participant

    I know you probably all think that I don’t keep my word, considering that several months ago I wrote:

    In fact there is either a Tosafos or a Maharsha in Kiddushin which asks why the gemara doesn’t make a certain kal vachomer and answers that the Gemara must have had some pircha that we don’t know of. (If I have time maybe I’ll locate the exact source.)

    yet I never provided the source. So to placate the the masses, here is the source:

    Maharsha Kiddushin 14a:

    ?”? ?????? ?”? ??? ?????? ?? ?? ???? ???? ????? ?? ??? ????? ?? ????? ????? ????? ?? ???? ??? ???? ??? ????? ?? ????? ???? ?????? ?? ????? ???? ???? ??’ ??? ??? ??? ??? ????? ?????? ??? ????? ??? ??? ???? ????? ???? ???? ????? ??? ??”? ?”? ?????? ??”? ?????? ??? ????? ????? ??”? ????’ ?? ???? ??? ??? ????? ???? ??

    ??”? ???? ??? ??????? ??? ????? ?? ????? ???? ?”?

    ???”?

    #1043114
    Patur Aval Assur
    Participant

    And once I’m on this thread again, a potential answer to the original question of why there is no problem of dayo in the kal vachomer (although I don’t think it works within the Medrash Shmuel):

    Tosafos in Kiddushin 10b says:

    ?????? ????? ????? ???? ??? ?????? ??? ??? ???? ???? ????? ??? ??? ???? ??? ???? ??? ??”? ??? ??? ???? ?? ????? ?”? ??”? ??? ???? ??? ??? ?????? ??? ???? ??? ???? ???? ??? ???? ????? ?? ??”? ??? ??? ???? ???

    i.e. the concept of dayo is only applicable in a case where you are making a kal vachomer to prove something not mentioned by the Torah, but where the Torah does mention something something and the kal vachomer is just explaining what the Torah was referring to, dayo is not an issue. In our situation, the chiddush of the kal vachomer is not that you have to honor your teacher; the chiddush is that for the purposes of honoring your teacher, even someone who only taught you one letter qualifies. So the kal vachomer is just defining the gedarim of a preexisting concept, hence dayo is not applicable.

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