Reply To: Why does Yiddish butcher Hebrew

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#2301867
ipchamistabra
Participant

@Hakatan those maskilim (and their danger) are gone

Far from it. Your philosophy, for example, is a clear-cut example of 20th C Haskalah.


@ZSK
Chassidim worldwide using Hebrew heavily influenced by Hungarian/Southeastern/Transcarpathian Yiddish, I believe that is due to cultural factors, specifically the Holocaust, which drove the various branches of Chassidim together and everyone more or less adopted the Satmar/Vitzhnitz pronunciation because they were dominant.

??!! (i) Perhaps because the populations of traditional Chasidic homelands were destroyed and the dialects lost, whereas 50% of Hungarian Jewry survived? (ii) Szatmar and Vizhnitz pronunciations are worlds apart. (iii) Off the top of my head, the Ashkenazi vowel shift u>ü>i started long before Chasidism, and – again, as I recall from several decades ago – is first recorded in Western Poland. (iv) What you refer to as Hungarian is only Western Hungarian, a population that predominantly derives from Galicia, but also includes some from Ukraine. (v) Polish/Ukrainian pronunciation is only similar is only similar in their treatment of kometz. The Ukrainian treatment of tsere is more like (but not identical to) Northern/Litvish – so 2 isoglosses.