Emancipation led to assimilation because before the Reformation, any Jews or Christians that socialized were risking their lives. The only way for a Jew to assimilate, was to Convert. In non religious countries assimilation is higher. And in non religious, non enlightened countries, assimilation is the highest. It’s like of course I’m a Jew, but why can’t I intermarry?
In sum, without gradual enlightenment, assimilation would be a wholesale movement. Just the force of the coming future alone is enough to cause a large amount of assimilation into it(the future). The Enlightenment was like an out of control release valve. You could point that it was a release of centuries of pressure. Or you can argue that it was out of control for decades.
Enjoy the debate.