Reply To: Paleo-Hebrew

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rightwriter
Participant

The Torah and Navi are still similar enough in language. And even if Navi is a bit different or more modern tongue, it’s still no comparison to having totally unrecognizable letters of the alphabet. Even if you compare the paleo hebrew letters to modern letters, many letters are just totally unrecognizable.

I understand that letters can change or be refined over time, but we claim that we are unchanged. So how do we know we are the same people as in early years? What makes us different than the italians, iranians, egyptians and so on to claim that they are a different nation but we are still the same?

Also if you look at what the oldest languages are, hebrew is not one of them. There are indian and Chinese and arabic languages which are claimed to be oldest and unchanged. Again they probably aren’t going by Torah but we can’t really claim that our language or alphabet hasn’t changed.

Instead of just claiming that we are the same as always, what is the proof that we have not changed. On what basis do we go by, if even our language evolved
I understand that language can evolve, but why would it evolve and so change so drastically in a nation who keeps tradition and does not move an inch to avoid straying away and getting lost. In such a nation, the question is WHY would it change. If this is the language/letters that the Torah was written in, who would want to change that? If this was the original text!
And again nolne answers how we look at letters as combinations of other letter such as alef being 2 yuds and a vav etc. When the earlier letters seem to be totally different or even having symbols such as an eye for the letter ayin.

So who changed these letters and why would they if this was the original writings?

On that note how do we know what language was used for everything written in the Torah? We have perushim in which they focus on every specific letter as being significant and having meaning. But how do we know they even spoke in this written language let alone spoke in the Hebrew which we know and use today!

And if the pesukim in Torah were not spoken in our language, what significance does each word or letter have that’s like taking a translation and giving the translated words significance saying they were specifically used in order to convey a different meaning. You can only say that when looking at the original text. I mean did pharaoh speak Hebrew whether it was ancient hebrew or modern? Why are his words so significant in the way the pesukim are written if most likely he spoke some dialect of ancient Egyptian or arabic?