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Some Common Sense: He didn’t have a Rebbe or Yeshiva, so it would be up to his father’s father’s hometown’s minhagim. I cannot remember right now the location of his father’s father’s hometown.
Either way, if he does not know them and/or has not lived them, why would he not go along with what his wife already knows. They raised their children based on her minhagim, and they would have not gone by anything had she not insisted on their marriage dependent on his observance.
I am glad that I asked because I thought that the answer would be obviously to go by the wife in such a case, so it is interesting to see that someone is insistent on it going by the husband and other posters are saying that it is not clear cut.
Thanks – I wonder if anyone in the CR knows of a similar situation.