“They’re just doing it from spite or to blackmail the wife financially or otherwise.”
what if the “otherwise” you mention is not necessarily wrong.
I often hear “There is never a reason to withhold a get”
Is this really true?
Imagine the most extreme hypothetical case you can. The wife receives full custody of the children, the husband knows she abuses them but she is so conniving that she managed to brainwash the kids into thinking their loving father is the abuser. etc etc Add in more extreme far fetched details as you see fit.
(I am no referring to any specific case, as I said this is “hypothetical”)
Is it really wrong to withhold a get in this extreme case?
I’m conflicted it makes me squeamish but I dont know if it is necessarily wrong, especially considering the risk to children in this extreme case
what do others think?