????, ??-????? ??-???? ???-????–??-? ???; ???? ?’, ?? ?????? ???
Rashi in Dibur HaMaschil ???? says “?? ?????”
The question here is What was bothering Rashi? (note: d’var torah not taken from Rabbi Bonchek’s book with the same name) We can see from the rest of the passuk that it was to the ?????!
The Ramban says that this was in essence a printers error. That the entire dibbur hamaschil was supposed to be the whole passuk, but someone shortened ??-????? ??-???? ???-???? to ?? ?????.
This answer is difficult on a number of reasons (especially since we don’t like to just take a difficulty and avoid it by saying it is a printers error)
So, how to all those other Rishonim and Achronim who don’t say like the Ramban understand what Rashi is adding here?
I saw in the Tallilei Oros (from a source whom I have never heard of before) the following p’shat. ?? ?????, and make the ???? not ?? ?????. Meaning that Hashem spoke with each one, since each one was an ??. Hashem spoke to ???? &???? not because they were the son and grandson of ?????, rather, each one had their own zechusim and each one had a right on their own to be called an ??.