If y = a^x then y’ = a^x * ln(a).
Being that ln(x) and e^x are inverse functions of each other, ln(e) = 1.
Therefore, the slope a x = 0 is e^0 * ln(e) = 1 * 1 = 1.
Is this what you’re asking?
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If y = a^x then y’ = a^x * ln(a).
Being that ln(x) and e^x are inverse functions of each other, ln(e) = 1.
Therefore, the slope a x = 0 is e^0 * ln(e) = 1 * 1 = 1.
Is this what you’re asking?