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May 9, 2014 9:00 pm at 9:00 pm
#1014597
Sam2
Participant
To answer the original question, there is no hint in secular sources of Aristotle converting. In fact, it’s Mashma from the Rambam and other Rishonim (who try to deal with the question of how Aristotle could have been so close to the truth yet remained an Apikores) that they hold he didn’t either.